RAC Devices Exam Practice Questions & Comprehensive Question Bank – 800+ Q&A with Answers and Explanations 

Practice Q&A for RAC Devices Exam – Elevate Your Preparation!

Are you gearing up for the Regulatory Affairs Certification (RAC) Devices exam? Our expansive question and answer set will give you an edge by simulating the exam environment and covering all critical topics. Below is a sample of the type of questions you will encounter in the exam.

Sample Q&A

1. What is the primary purpose of a 510(k) submission?
A. To provide proof of clinical efficacy for a device
B. To demonstrate substantial equivalence to a legally marketed device
C. To obtain approval for a new class of devices
D. To ensure compliance with Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP)

Correct Answer: B. To demonstrate substantial equivalence to a legally marketed device
Explanation: A 510(k) submission is required to demonstrate that a new medical device is substantially equivalent to a legally marketed device, also known as a predicate device.

2. Which of the following is the primary difference between a Class I and Class II medical device?
A. Class II devices require clinical trials, while Class I devices do not
B. Class I devices are subject to more stringent regulatory controls than Class II
C. Class II devices typically require premarket notification (510(k))
D. Class I devices are exempt from FDA regulations

Correct Answer: C. Class II devices typically require premarket notification (510(k))
Explanation: Class II devices require premarket notification to the FDA, commonly in the form of a 510(k), while Class I devices are generally exempt from this requirement.

3. What is the FDA's role in the regulatory approval of medical devices?
A. FDA approves all devices before they enter the market
B. FDA ensures the safety and effectiveness of medical devices, but does not approve all of them
C. FDA only approves drugs and not medical devices
D. FDA has no regulatory oversight over medical devices

Correct Answer: B. FDA ensures the safety and effectiveness of medical devices, but does not approve all of them
Explanation: The FDA ensures that medical devices meet safety and efficacy standards, but it does not approve all devices. Many devices are cleared via the 510(k) pathway or exempt from premarket approval.

4. Which of the following documents is required for a Premarket Approval (PMA) submission?
A. 510(k)
B. Design History File (DHF)
C. Clinical Data Study Protocol
D. Annual Report

Correct Answer: B. Design History File (DHF)
Explanation: The DHF is a required document that includes the design and development process of the medical device. It is needed for the Premarket Approval (PMA) process.

5. What does the term "substantial equivalence" refer to in the context of FDA 510(k) submissions?
A. A new device that is identical to an existing device
B. A new device that is similar in intended use and performance to a legally marketed device
C. A device that meets all FDA safety requirements
D. A device that is more effective than a legally marketed device

Correct Answer: B. A new device that is similar in intended use and performance to a legally marketed device
Explanation: Substantial equivalence means that the new device is at least as safe and effective as a legally marketed device.

6. What class of medical devices are typically subject to the lowest level of regulatory control?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Investigational Devices

Correct Answer: A. Class I
Explanation: Class I devices are subject to the least regulatory control and typically do not require premarket approval or clearance.

7. Under the FDA's QSR (Quality System Regulations), which of the following must be implemented for a medical device manufacturer?
A. Clinical trials for all devices
B. A validated system for design control
C. An annual review by the FDA
D. Pre-market clinical trials

Correct Answer: B. A validated system for design control
Explanation: The FDA’s QSR mandates that manufacturers implement a validated design control system to ensure the quality and safety of medical devices.

8. Which of the following is true regarding device labeling requirements under the FDA?
A. Device labels are required to provide detailed clinical trial results
B. Device labels must include the manufacturer’s registration number
C. Device labels must include a clear indication of intended use
D. Device labels must be written in English only

Correct Answer: C. Device labels must include a clear indication of intended use
Explanation: The FDA requires that device labels clearly indicate the intended use, as well as other information like warnings, contraindications, and directions for use.

9. In which of the following scenarios would a Class III medical device be required?
A. When the device poses a high risk to the patient and requires premarket approval (PMA)
B. For devices that are substantially equivalent to a legally marketed device
C. For devices that have a low to moderate risk to patients
D. For devices with a new intended use but no additional risks

Correct Answer: A. When the device poses a high risk to the patient and requires premarket approval (PMA)
Explanation: Class III devices pose the highest risk to patients, often requiring Premarket Approval (PMA), which involves clinical trials to ensure safety and efficacy.

10. What is the FDA's Medical Device Reporting (MDR) regulation designed to do?
A. Ensure timely approval of devices
B. Collect information on device performance and adverse events
C. Manage product recalls
D. Monitor the device's market competition

Correct Answer: B. Collect information on device performance and adverse events
Explanation: The MDR regulation requires manufacturers to report adverse events, device defects, and malfunctions to the FDA to ensure patient safety.

11. What is the difference between a 510(k) and a Premarket Approval (PMA)?
A. 510(k) is for high-risk devices, while PMA is for low-risk devices
B. PMA is a more stringent regulatory pathway that requires clinical data, while 510(k) does not
C. 510(k) requires clinical trials, while PMA does not
D. 510(k) is for devices with no predicate device, while PMA applies to those with a predicate

Correct Answer: B. PMA is a more stringent regulatory pathway that requires clinical data, while 510(k) does not
Explanation: PMA is required for high-risk devices and involves clinical trials, whereas 510(k) is used for devices that are substantially equivalent to a legally marketed device and generally does not require clinical data.

12. What must be included in the Risk Management File according to ISO 14971?
A. A detailed report of post-market surveillance
B. A record of the device’s performance and any adverse events
C. A list of potential hazards and risk control measures
D. A description of the manufacturing process

Correct Answer: C. A list of potential hazards and risk control measures
Explanation: ISO 14971 requires that a Risk Management File includes identification of hazards, the likelihood of their occurrence, and measures to control the risks associated with the device.

13. What is the FDA's stance on combination products (e.g., drug-device combos)?
A. Combination products are subject to the same regulations as individual devices
B. Combination products require an additional review process that combines the regulations for both drugs and devices
C. The FDA does not regulate combination products
D. Combination products only need to meet one set of regulations, either drug or device

Correct Answer: B. Combination products require an additional review process that combines the regulations for both drugs and devices
Explanation: Combination products are regulated by the FDA under a combination of drug and device regulations depending on their primary intended use.

14. What does a Clinical Evaluation Report (CER) typically include?
A. Details of the manufacturing process and quality controls
B. A review of clinical studies and evidence regarding the device’s safety and efficacy
C. An analysis of the device’s market competition
D. A financial forecast for the device’s lifecycle

Correct Answer: B. A review of clinical studies and evidence regarding the device’s safety and efficacy
Explanation: A CER is a document that compiles clinical evidence to demonstrate the safety and performance of a medical device.

15. Which of the following is a key requirement for maintaining FDA device approval?
A. Annual clinical trials
B. Post-market surveillance to monitor safety and performance
C. Regular updates to labeling
D. A new 510(k) submission every year

Correct Answer: B. Post-market surveillance to monitor safety and performance
Explanation: Manufacturers must continually monitor the safety and performance of a device after it reaches the market, reporting adverse events and other issues to the FDA.

16. What is the role of the ISO 13485 standard in the medical device industry?
A. To define the clinical trial protocols for medical devices
B. To establish requirements for quality management systems
C. To provide guidelines for medical device marketing
D. To monitor post-market performance of medical devices

Correct Answer: B. To establish requirements for quality management systems
Explanation: ISO 13485 specifies requirements for a comprehensive quality management system for the design and manufacture of medical devices.

17. What is required for the approval of a new diagnostic device in the U.S.?
A. FDA approval is not necessary for diagnostic devices
B. Only clinical data is required for approval
C. FDA clearance through the 510(k) process or approval through PMA
D. A premarket notification to a third-party organization

Correct Answer: C. FDA clearance through the 510(k) process or approval through PMA
Explanation: New diagnostic devices generally require FDA clearance through the 510(k) process or, for high-risk devices, approval through the PMA process.

18. Which of the following does not typically require regulatory approval before market introduction?
A. Class I devices
B. Class II devices
C. Class III devices
D. Investigational devices

Correct Answer: A. Class I devices
Explanation: Class I devices are usually exempt from FDA premarket approval or clearance requirements, as they are considered low risk.

19. What is the primary responsibility of a Regulatory Affairs professional in the device industry?
A. To conduct clinical trials
B. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements
C. To oversee the manufacturing process
D. To develop new devices

Correct Answer: B. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements
Explanation: Regulatory Affairs professionals are responsible for ensuring that devices comply with local and international regulatory requirements throughout the product lifecycle.

20. What is the role of a Design History File (DHF) in the device development process?
A. To demonstrate the financial performance of the device
B. To document the design and development stages of a medical device
C. To store post-market surveillance data
D. To manage device recalls

Correct Answer: B. To document the design and development stages of a medical device
Explanation: The DHF documents the design process, including design inputs, outputs, and changes, ensuring the device meets user needs and regulatory requirements.

Bonus Questions from Our Exclusive Question Bank:

Regulatory Questions and Answers for Devices

Question 1: Primary Jurisdiction Over Vascular Grafts

Which division would have primary jurisdiction over a vascular graft with an antibiotic based on primary mode of action?
A. CDER
B. CBER
C. CDRH
D. OCP

Correct Answer: C. The primary mode of action is that of the vascular graft (device), with the antibiotic being supportive.

Question 2: Modifications to Legally Marketed Devices

A company wants to modify its legally marketed device such that the modification does not affect the intended use or alter the fundamental scientific technology of the device. If the design outputs of the modified device meet the design input requirements, this change would be best filed as a(n):
A. Special 510(k)
B. Abbreviated 510(k)
C. Traditional 510(k)
D. De novo 510(k)

Correct Answer: A. Special 510(k) is allowed when relying on compliance with design controls.

Question 3: Production Regulations for Deodorants

A personal deodorant manufacturer is required to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Comply with GMP
B. State the place of business on the label
C. List the quantity of contents on the label
D. Comply with export regulations when exporting product

Correct Answer: A. Compliance to GMP is recommended but not required for cosmetics under Section 602(b) of the FD&C Act.

Question 4: 510(k) Requirements and Violations

Under the statutory violations, failure to meet 510(k) requirements for a device that is required to have a 510(k) and is in commercial distribution is considered to be:
A. Adulteration
B. Improper use
C. Misbranded
D. Fraudulent

Correct Answer: C. Such a device is considered misbranded under Section 502(o) of the FD&C Act.

Question 5: Class II Sutures Marketing Timeline

A company’s competitor is marketing a Class II suture which dissolves during the third week of use. The company’s current product has to be removed by a physician. A change in weaving configuration gives this product the same dissolving time as the competitor’s. When can the company’s new suture be marketed?
A. This requires a new 510(k).
B. After submission in a periodic report
C. After reporting clinical studies in an annual report
D. After submission of labeling change

Correct Answer: A. A new intended use requires a new 510(k) clearance.

Question 6: Quality System Regulations Exemptions

Which of the following is exempt from Quality System regulations?
A. Remanufacturers
B. Custom device manufacturers
C. Repackagers
D. Component manufacturers

Correct Answer: D. Component manufacturers are excluded from GMP per 21 CFR 820.1(a)(1).

Question 7: Device Failure and User Investigation

If a device failure is occurring with greater than expected frequency and investigation of the problem implicates improper use by the end user, which of the following typically occurs?
A. The labeling is revised.
B. The product is recalled.
C. The product is redesigned.
D. A “Dear Doctor” letter is issued.

Correct Answer: A. The labeling should provide appropriate information for proper use of the product.

Question 8: Reporting Serious Adverse Events

A physician reports to a manufacturer that a patient was hospitalized with acute sepsis after treatment with an approved device. This side effect is not listed in the package insert. This event must be reported by the manufacturer to FDA no later than:
A. 5 calendar days
B. 15 calendar days
C. 30 calendar days
D. The next quarterly or annual report

Correct Answer: C. Serious injury must be reported within 30 days; see 21 CFR 803.50(a).

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